I understand that Muslims believe that the Quran is the final and complete revelation of God, but this is merely a restatement of what I said, that any religious person tends to believe in the absolute validity of their own scriptures. Christians believe that the Bible is not just a book of human origin, but a revelation from the Almighty; Jews believe the same about the Torah. Others have to examine the credibility of such claims.

I don't believe I was misinterpreting the passage at 2.112; I was merely asking for your opinion. If this passage is inclusive of all people who submit to God's will, regardless of their religious background or gender, does that mean that they don't have to accept the authority of the Quran? And why does the passage seem to refer to only men?